Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Donald R. Vance, Ph.D." <donaldrvance AT mac.com>]

It does no such thing. What are the extant texts from the ninth  
century to which you are comparing it? It, in fact reads very much  
exilic and post-exilic, to the degree that a text can be dated on style.

Donald R. Vance, Ph.D.
Professor of Biblical Languages and Literature
Oral Roberts University
dvance AT oru.edu
donaldrvance AT mac.com


On Mar 9, 2011, at 11:04 AM, K Randolph wrote:
> Exactly. The historic evidences within the document indicate ninth  
> century
> BC authorship, language can be archaized, but the literary style is
> consistent with a pre-Babylonian Exile style in a way that was not  
> copied by
> any post-Babylonian Exile Hebrew documents, which also shows up in the
> poetry of the document. Therefore, the claim that the one word shows  
> late
> authorship is contradicted by a far greater weight of data  
> indicating early
> authorship.