Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Bryant J. Williams III" <bjwvmw AT com-pair.net>]

Dear Fred,

Regarding your #5.

The Codices Alexandrinus, Sinaiticus and Vaticanus were combined LXX for the 
OT and Koine Greek for the NT.

Rev. Bryant J. Williams III
  ----- Original Message ----- 
  From: fred burlingame 
  To: Bryant J. Williams III 
  Cc: George Athas ; B-Hebrew 
  Sent: Sunday, December 26, 2010 8:19 AM
  Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Was the MT for public consumption?


  Hello Bryant:
  ?
  Thanks for your informative comments.
  ?
  1. I only mention the term "faith" in order to mark the boundary of this 
forum. I understand the border of this list includes "fact."
  ?
  2. Your statement that the scroll of isaiah?would have been?read in 
biblical?hebrew language?to the synagogue?congregation in 
galilee,?approximately?20 a.d.; and that the congregation would 
have?understood the reading in hebrew, fluently .... goes to the heart of the 
matter. A most significant statement indeed.
  ?
  3. This instructor of hebrew concludes the funeral of biblical hebrew had 
not occurred in 20 a.d. see chapters v & vi.
  ?
  http://www.adath-shalom.ca/rabin_he.htm
  ?
  4. Likewise, this author so concludes mishnaic?hebrew continued as a common 
spoken language in 20 a.d.
  ?
  http://www.adath-shalom.ca/history_of_hebrew.htm#PostExH''
  ?
  5. "2" - "4" above weigh heavy indeed on the forbidden question. ..... Was 
the last 1/3 of codices alexandrinus, sinaiticus and vaticanus ....... 
originally composed in the hebrew language .....? And "2" - "4" above?imply 
that the affirmative?answer to that question?involves?"fact" rather 
than?"faith."?

  regards,
  ?
  fred burlingame
  ?
  ?
  On Sat, Dec 25, 2010 at 3:07 AM, Bryant J. Williams III 
<bjwvmw AT com-pair.net> wrote:

    Dear Fred,
    ?
    Read my post again. It answers most of your questions.
    ?
    Now, regarding your second point. Modern scholarship is divided over 
whether there were one, two or three Isaiahs. Conservative scholarship treats 
Isaiah being produced by one person, the prophet Isaiah. Most modern 
scholarship treats Isaiah as being written by two, maybe three persons. It is 
based on the discredited JEDP theory of Graf-Welhausen. SEE archives for 
previous discussions. I gave you a very brief discussion. I will not comment 
further since it is going into areas limited by List guidelines. Remember, 
ALL we have is the text. To go beyond that is to give a pre-text which is no 
text at all. Basically, it is eisegesis not exegesis.
    ?
    It appears that you are making the classic dichotomy between faith and 
fact. Faith and knowledge go hand in hand. Both are intuitive, intellectual 
and experiential. Both are used in determing fact from fiction. 
Unfortunately, too many people think that if something is stated by reason of 
faith that it is automatically fiction. As I said, "Faith and knowledge go 
hand in hand." Faith, belief, or trust is used in when determining the value 
placed in a document that is being used as a source whether it speaks of fact 
or fiction. Knowledge will lead a person so far. Faith takes up where 
knowledge leads off. It looks at what is presented before with knowledge and 
proceeds from there. This is not rocket science.
    ?
    You seem to be questioning a lot of the presuppositions that are inherent 
in what has gone before. This is always good to a certain extant. But, 
sometimes, it could be construed as being?pedantic or just arguing for 
argument sakes. An example would be when I teach the High Schoolers or 
College Age or, even, the Adults in Sunday School, or in the preaching 
services, I make several statements. First, I am a Christian. Second, I am a 
Baptist. I then ask the group that I am teaching or preaching to, "If you 
claim to be a Christian, 'Why are you a Christian?'" "If you are a Baptist, 
Why are you a Baptist?'"?Give the reasons for your claims. This appears to me 
is what you are doing on the list. If I am wrong, then please correct me and 
accept my apologies. In fact, I may have inadvertantly exceeded List 
Guidelines. To the moderators, If I have please accept my apologies.
    ?
    Now, Luke 4 and the use of Isaiah 61 in the Synagogue of Nazareth. It is 
clear that Jesus read from the Hebrew text (See Commentary on the NT Use of 
the OT). He sat down and proclaimed that the Scripture passage was fulfilled. 
It is also apparent that the congregation was being read to and that they 
understood the Hebrew (at least according to all the evidence from antiquity 
and archaeology). It is also possible, maybe probable, that it was read in 
Hebrew, translated into Aramaic for the congregation. That is why I told 
George that it is more than likely both/and not either/or.
    ?
    Rev. Bryant J. Williams III
      ?


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