Biblical Hebrew Forum

[James Christian <jc.bhebrew AT googlemail.com>]

It's not going to happen Karl. We're speaking to a guy who believes that
hypothetical models of earlier stages of the language have more force than
the actual data and insists in discussions that everybody works with the
same set of unfounded assumptions.

James Christian

On 17 May 2010 17:06, K Randolph <kwrandolph AT gmail.com> wrote:

> Yitzhak:
>
> On Mon, May 17, 2010 at 4:41 AM, Yitzhak Sapir <yitzhaksapir AT gmail.com
> >wrote:
>
> >
> > Karl, again, the issue is not whether the Siloam inscription or other
> > pre-exilic inscriptions
> > fit the Bible's spelling, but whether the Bible fits the pre-exilic
> > spelling, and it does not.
> > I prefer discussing other points besides the construct plural, though.
> >
> > Yitzhak Sapir
> >
>
> You made a claim, which you repeated here, for which you have so far given
> no evidence to support it within Hebrew. I would not be surprised that the
> totality of your “evidence” comes from cognate languages.
>
> Appropriate evidence to answer this question is inscriptions such as the
> Siloam inscription, and that backs up the Biblical spelling. What you need
> to find is several different Hebrew examples that show a pattern of
> spellings that differ from the Biblical pattern, and not only have you not
> done so, I don’t think you can. Without evidence, your claim is empty.
>
> The reason I emphasize Hebrew is that differing spellings from cognate
> languages can reflect differing pronunciations that differentiate those
> languages from Hebrew. Therefore they are not evidence that the consonantal
> spelling of the MT differs from pre-Exilic Hebrew spelling.
>
> For this discussion, you need to refer either to examples that can be
> viewed
> online, or if they are offline, e.g. in books, scan them and send them as
> attachments so that we can see them.
>
> Karl W. Randolph.
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