Biblical Hebrew Forum

[David Hamuel <davidhamuel AT sbcglobal.net>]

There seems to be a controversy over the use of a meteg in Masoretic
manuscripts. I know this is a complicated topic and not all about it is
clear and agreed by all. My specific question is related to a meteg under a
letter that is followed by a letter that has a Shva. What is the prevailing
view - that the Masoretes intended to use this meteg to indicate that the
following Shva is a Shva Na OR that that Masoretes did not intend to
indicate anything about the following Shva (even though in most cases this
happens to be a Shva Na)? Or are there other views?


I'm very interested in hearing about sources (medieval grammarians, modern
grammarians) that address this question. 

Many thanks!
Rivka Sherman-Gold


===============


Yes, indeed this is a complicated topic. 

> he Masoretes intended to use this meteg to indicate that the following Shva 
> is a Shva Na 

Yes (or probably :) )  For example, meteg + vav--shuruk; Leviticus 25:34 ( 
the sheva was nach, with the meteg -- na). Genesis 21:6 (the last word with 
the makef) -- here you have more complicated issue: nasog ahor. 


> sources (medieval grammarians, modern grammarians) that address this 
> question.

Selected sources:

1. Dikduke ha-Te'amim -- Dotan editon, part b.
2. Heidenheim -- Mishpete ha-Te'amim
3. Levita -- Tuv Ta'am
4. Norzi -- Ma'amar ha-Ma'arich
5. Balmes -- Mikneh Avraham.

 > For example: [vay-,yo:m-'ru:] -- more accurately pronounced 
 > [vay-,yo-om-'ru-u]. 

Now we read it with sheva na. See the chumash  by Rabbi Prof. Breuer. 



Best,

David Hamuel
Type Designer 
Biblical Hebrew, Grammar & Cantillation Expert

Los Angeles, CA — USA