Biblical Hebrew Forum

["K Randolph" <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>]

Dave:

On 11/9/07, dwashbur AT nyx.net <dwashbur AT nyx.net> wrote:
> Howdy  Karl,
>
> On 9 Nov 2007 at 15:19, K Randolph wrote:
>
> > Dave:
> >
> > On 11/9/07, dwashbur AT nyx.net <dwashbur AT nyx.net> wrote:
> > >
> > >
> > >... Karl reads unpointed text as well, but I suspect he probably reads a 
> > >definite article here, as well.  He can correct me on that if I'm wrong, 
> > >because I'm essentially guessing :-)  It's the difference between 
> > >B'MAQOM and BAMAQOM, whether you actually notate it or not.  Basically, 
> > >the literary meaning is "THE place [that we're going to talk about in 
> > >this part of the story].  It's better English idiom, and hence more 
> > >readable for the average English reader, to say "a certain place."
> > >
> > Here is a case where Biblical Hebrew uses a definite article and good 
> > English an indefinite one. As for the meaning, the context indicates the 
> > following interpretation:
>
> So I was correct that you read a definite article here?
>
Yes.

> > Here I think you overemphasize the importance of the definite article. I 
> > think its position here is more to fulfill the expectations of grammar 
> > than to change meaning.
>
> Not sure I follow.  Could you elaborate a little?
>
If you remember, we had a discussion on this in June of this year,
detailing many places where Biblical Hebrew takes the definite article
where English takes an indefinite article. In that place it started
with the use of the definite article in Isaiah 7:14. Other verses were
mentioned as well.
>
> Dave Washburn
> As a French hippie might say, "Je ne creuse pas!"

Karl W. Randolph.