Biblical Hebrew Forum

["B. M. Rocine" <brocine AT twcny.rr.com>]

Hi men,

Contrary to Speiser, I say the vowel pointing of bammaqom has little to 
do with this business.  Moses writes, vayyiphga` bammaqom vayyalen sham 
vayyiqqax me'abney hammaqom.  See how the writer tracks the place in 
three successive clauses:  bammaqom...sham...hammaqom.   Clearly the 
place is monumental in importance.  It is a *certain place*. 

In fact, if the setting is not important and specific in the narrative, 
why does the writer need to even mention that Jacob happened upon *a* 
place or *the* place where he stayed the night?  For the writer to 
mention the obvious here is to highlight the significant. 

I think the rules of cooperation and relevance that exist between a 
writer and his audience strongly indicate that it was a "certain place."

I don't imagine this has much to do with Jim's hypothesis one way or the 
other, a hypothesis which I also do *not* think has "a place" in the 
b-hebrew forum.

Shalom,
Bryan


dwashbur AT nyx.net wrote:
> On 9 Nov 2007 at 14:51, JimStinehart AT aol.com wrote:
>
>
>   
>   
> > Most translations do in fact say "a certain place".  The JPS1917, which is 
> > often the best  translation, instead says "the place". 
> > E.A. Speiser says:  "a  certain place.  The attribute is  implicit in the d
> > efinite article of Heb." 
> > What am I missing here?  Is the B considered a definite article  here? Why?  
> > And if so, why "a  certain place" rather than "the place"? 
> >     

--
B.M. Rocine
Living Word Church
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Syracuse, NY 13206
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