Biblical Hebrew Forum

[JimStinehart AT aol.com]

Dave  Washburn: 
You  wrote:  "Here we go again; I  did not say this.  I mentioned that the 
Masoretic pointing was somewhat at  odds with your translation, nothing more. 
 I 
also pointed out that, with or  without the pointing, the grammar of the 
clause supports the translation "a  certain place" which you reject.  Hence, 
your 
view is at odds with the  actual grammar of the passage.  NOTHING is based on 
"reliance on the  medieval Masoretic pointing system."  It's based on 
grammar, 
nothing more,  nothing less." 
I feel very bad that I seem to have misrepresented what you said.  My 
apologies again. 
Could you please explain to me the basis for the following key contention  of 
yours? 
"[T]he grammar of the clause supports the translation 'a certain  place'…." 
I am obviously missing something here.  Are we looking at the same Hebrew  
letters?  Or am I missing the  significance of one Hebrew letter in the text? 
 
Why "a certain place", instead of "a  place"? 
I note that Young's Literal Translation oddly puts the  word "certain" in 
brackets.   
"and he toucheth at a [certain] place" 
Most translations do in fact say "a certain place".  The JPS1917, which is 
often the best  translation, instead says "the place". 
E.A. Speiser says:  "a  certain place.  The attribute is  implicit in the d
efinite article of Heb." 
What am I missing here?  Is the B considered a definite article  here? Why?  
And if so, why "a  certain place" rather than "the place"?   
My guess is that maybe I am not the only one confused about this.  Could you 
please explain the grammatical  rule that suggests, but apparently does not 
mandate, adding the word "certain"  before the word "place" in Genesis 28: 
11? 
I am sorry that I have not yet understood the precise grammatical point  you 
are making.  I did not mean to  misrepresent what you said. 
Jim Stinehart 
Evanston, Illinois



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