Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Uri Hurwitz <uhurwitz AT yahoo.com>]

 George Athas:
   
  .."If the shewa is silent within a word, why the need to mark some gutturals
with a composite shewa, but not others? What is the governing factor
   there?"
   
   The  Masoretes (Naqdanim) simply were not always consistent, and no 
  regularity can be discerned in  their inconsistency, for if there had been
  one it would have been noted by biblical grammarians a long time ago.
   
   It had to do with the sharpness of hearing: they detected a slight movement
  in even a silent guttoral and marked this with  a "furtive vowel", that is 
with
   a Ha(.)Ta(.)F.
    Whether this was ever pronounced as a full vowel as in modern Heb. 
  is another question.
   
   Let's keep in mind that Arabic, in contrast,  accepts a full silent 
guttoral 
  ( with a 'Skun'),but established the 'Hamza' for Alephs with a glottal stop;
  the masoretes, on the other had found no need for such a marker. 
   
   Uri   Hurwitz
   
   
   
   

       
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>From capechurch AT gmail.com  Tue Sep  4 12:05:18 2007
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Date: Tue, 4 Sep 2007 18:05:16 +0200
From: "Dr Raoul Comninos" <capechurch AT gmail.com>
To: "Yitzhak Sapir" <yitzhaksapir AT gmail.com>
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Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Was Schewa really silent?
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Yitzhak,
I meant both kinds.

On 9/4/07, Yitzhak Sapir <yitzhaksapir AT gmail.com> wrote:

> What kind of guidance?  Telling whether the schewa is vocal or not? Or
> on how to pronounce it?
>
> Yitzhak Sapir
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