Biblical Hebrew Forum

["George Athas" <george.athas AT moore.edu.au>]

Fascinating discussion, folks. I have a question relating to the following
quote:
 
> The most useful article I have read on the shewa is
> by William Chomsky: "THE PRONUNCIATION OF THE SHEWA".
> I can email a copy to anyone interested in reading
> it. In it, he argues principally against the notion
> that shewa is vocal after a long vowel. It IS vocal,
> according to the article:
> 
> * at the beginning of a word
> * after another shewa
> * under a consonant doubled by a dagesh
> * under the first of two like consonants
> 
> However, it is not vocal in the middle of a word, 
> not even even after a long vowel.
 
 
If the shewa is silent within a word, why the need to mark some gutturals
with a composite shewa, but not others? What is the governing factor there?
 
 

Best Regards, 

GEORGE ATHAS 
Moore Theological College (Sydney) 
1 King St, Newtown, NSW 2042, Australia 
Ph: (+61 2) 9577 9774