Biblical Hebrew Forum

[David Kummerow <farmerjoeblo AT hotmail.com>]

Peter,

Thank you, too, for the discussion and it is exceedingly helpful for me 
also.

Due to your questioning, I am having doubts as to the status of 
"bendeniz" also (I think I mentioned this just before in another post?). 
In any case, it neither proves nor disproves things as there is a 2nd 
person polite form in the language. So let's move on. The matter has 
been a useful discussion, though, in helping to cast light onto the 
issue of `abdeka etc.

Regards,
David Kummerow,


> Thank you for continuing to help me here. Yes, you may be right about 
> `abdeka, and certainly about "your humble servant", that they are 
> analysable. But I am far from sure that this is not true of Turkish 
> "bendeniz", especially since the variant "bendeleri" is found, and these 
> forms are very clearly the second and third person plural possessed form 
> of a known noun "bende". Yet you put forward the Turkish as an example. 
> So I remain a bit confused about the criteria.
>
> But does it matter? It is less important to decide whether certain 
> Hebrew forms fit someone's rather unclear (at least to me) definitions 
> and theories than to decide what actually happens in Hebrew.
>
> --
> Peter Kirk
> E-mail:  peter at qaya.org 
> <http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew>
> Blog:    http://speakertruth.blogspot.com/
> Website: http://www.qaya.org/