Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Shoshanna Walker <rosewalk AT concentric.net>]

I'm sorry, I don't understand, or forgot from high school, the 
terminology of linguists.

Revowel what?  I can't change Torah or revowel it.

satan here is used as part of a phrase  ba'derech le'satan lo - how 
do you justify taking it out of the phrase?

How would "ba'derech" fit into your phrase - "for an adversary to him"?

Shoshanna



> "...and an angel of Hashem stood on the road TO IMPEDE HIM (Ba'derech
> le'satan lo)...."
>
> Verb
Again, only if you revowel. If you disagree please sight an infinitive
with these vowels anywhere in the Tanakh.
> If there were not the words Ba'derech before, and lo after, and if
> the lamed was "la" instead of "le", then maybe a noun
This would be a difference of definite vs indefinite noun but both are
completely possible and the indefinite makes sense in this context.
"for an adversary to him"

None of this seems to amount to hill of beans anyway since neither
changes the meaning.

Joel Stucki