Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Harold Holmyard <hholmyard AT ont.com>]

Dear Bryan,

> I own all the "major published translations of the Bible" (to quote 
> Harold) and found it unsatisfying.  That's why I have spent some 
> considerable time and expense trying to learn Hebrew.
>
> So without recourse to English translations, can anyone tell me the 
> difference between the meaning or function of a noun sentence and a 
> sentence using qatal of HYH when either appears in narration?
>
> Example:  Is there any difference when a narrator says
>
> a.  veha'arets tohu vabohu
>
> and
>
> b.  veha'arets hayetah tohu vabohu
>
> ?????
>
> I am assuming there should be a difference.
>
>
>  
HH: I don't know that there has to be a difference. In Greek, too, there 
can be verbless sentences or EIMI can be used. I have never noticed a 
real difference. There are different ways of saying things in English, 
such as using contraction or not with verbs. These different ways don't 
have to imply a difference in meaning but could reflect the writer's 
style, his mood, his flow of thought, the tone he wants to create, the 
rhythm, or even his space on a line of writing material.

Yours,
Harold Holmyard

> >    
>
>