Skip to Content.
Sympa Menu

b-hebrew - Re: [b-hebrew] "I Am" vs. "I Will Be"

b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org

Subject: Biblical Hebrew Forum

List archive

Chronological Thread  
  • From: "Karl Randolph" <kwrandolph AT email.com>
  • To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] "I Am" vs. "I Will Be"
  • Date: Thu, 29 Jun 2006 17:34:51 -0500

Solomon:

The answer is because of how Biblical Hebrew
differs from modern English. Modern translators
merely try to approximate the aspectual nature of
Hebrew with a short, pithy, easily read translation
in tensual English that can't reproduce the
fullness of the Hebrew original. If we really
wanted to give the full meaning of the Hebrew, we
would need to write a sentence or two for the three
words in Exodus.

Karl W. Randolph.

> ----- Original Message -----
> From: Awohili AT aol.com
>
> In a message dated 06/29/2006 10:58:21 A.M. Pacific Daylight Time,
> dwashbur AT nyx.net writes:
>
> I don't know that anybody said it's not "acceptable," most have just said
> it's preferrable to
> translate it as present tense.
> ****************
>
> That just begs the question. Why is it any more "preferable" to translate
> ehyeh as "I Am" at Exodus 3:14 than at Exodus 3:12, where KJV, NIV, NRSV,
> NASB, NAB and others render it as "I will be"? It's the same word, and the
> context hasn't changed.
>
> Obviously, many translators find it "preferable" to render ehyeh as "I will
> be" at Exodus 3:12. Yet, two verses later, it's "I Am."
>
> I see nothing convincing here.
>
> Solomon Landers

--
___________________________________________________
Play 100s of games for FREE! http://games.mail.com/





Archive powered by MHonArc 2.6.24.

Top of Page