Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Awohili AT aol.com]

In a message dated 06/29/2006 10:58:21 A.M. Pacific Daylight Time,  
dwashbur AT nyx.net writes:

I don't know  that anybody said it's not "acceptable," most have just said 
it's preferrable  to 
translate it as present tense.  
****************
 
That just begs the question.  Why is it any more  "preferable" to translate 
ehyeh as "I Am" at Exodus 3:14 than at  Exodus 3:12, where KJV, NIV, NRSV, 
NASB, NAB and others render it as "I will  be"?  It's the same word, and the 
context hasn't changed.
 
Obviously, many translators find it "preferable" to render  ehyeh as "I will 
be" at Exodus 3:12.  Yet, two verses later, it's "I  Am."
 
I see nothing convincing here.
 
Solomon Landers