Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Revdpickrel AT wmconnect.com]

In a message dated 4/13/2006 9:03:08 PM Central Daylight Time, 
hholmyard AT ont.com writes:


> 
> HH: Jeremiah 4:23-26 is figurative language and imagery associated with the 
> destruction of Israel in 587 B.C. It may report a vision Jeremiah saw that 
> portrayed that destruction. "Yowm" does not really mean age or aeon. With a 
> preposition it can have the idea of "when" or "at the time." Psalm 18 is 
> figurative language about a divine deliverance of David by God. The Bible 
> sometimes 
> uses figurative language about the heavens to describe important events on 
> earth. We might talk of earthshaking events. The Israelites could think of 
> heaven-shaking events. I realize that this can sometimes be literal, but 
> other 
> times it seems more figurative.
> I don't believe that Genesis 1 describes a renewing of the face of creation 
> but rather it depicts the original creation.
> 
> Yours,
> Harold Holmyard

HH,

Yes, one could say that God was using figurative language.  That would 
explain away a lot of questions, but, Harold, it doesn't satisfy my 
questions.  If 
it does it for you then you're quenching your thirst.

Doug.
Rev. Doug Pickrel, Litt.D.
Tejas Valley
San Antonio, Texas