Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Karl Randolph" <kwrandolph AT email.com>]

I will add to this, how do we know that the waw in the 
name is not a matere lectionis? Why is it always read 
as a consonant?

That it is a matere lectionis when used as part of a name 
be a clue that it is not a consonant in the name as well?

Karl W. Randolph.


----- Original Message -----
From: "Read, James C" <K0434995 AT kingston.ac.uk>
> 
> No, you're not wrong. Maybe you should reread the post in the context of the
> discussion. We had mentioned a theory of how proto-semitic consisted of only
> CV syllables. To which I added the theory that syllables did not contain any
> schewa vowels but that they crept in as a metter of laziness in 
> pronunciation.
> As the original theoretical proto-semitic contained only CV 
> syllables, where we
> see CVCCV must have originally been CVCVCV and so the natural transition
> would have been from full vowel to vocal schewa to silent schewa.
> 
> I hope this clears up the intentions of my last post.

-- 
___________________________________________________________
Sign-up for Ads Free at Mail.com
http://promo.mail.com/adsfreejump.htm