Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Karl Randolph" <kwrandolph AT email.com>]

Peter:

True, the Mesha Stone has fewer materes lectionis than 
later Hebrew, but the yod is attested to as a mater 
lectionis if line 2 and other places, and waw in lines 31 
and 32 for the town XWRNN.

And just because Moabite didn't use as many materes 
lectionis as later Hebrew, does that mean that Hebrew 
didn't use them either? Cognate languages, even those 
as close as Hebrew and Moabite, can sometimes be more 
different that we expect. And that could show up in writing.

As for the waw use as a word final, I have seen it used as 
early as proto-Sinaitic.

Back to my original question below.

Karl W. Randolph.

----- Original Message -----
From: "Peter Kirk" <peterkirk AT qaya.org>
> 
> On 18/10/2005 00:44, Karl Randolph wrote:
> 
> > Peter:
> >
> > When was the waw first used as a mater lectionis?
> >
> > I have seen materes lectionis used as early as on a proto-
> > Sinaitic inscription, and waw is used several times in the Siloam 
> > inscription as a mater lectionis, so where is YHWH attested to 
> > before waw is attested to as a mater lectionis?
> >
> >
> >
>  From memory, on the Mesha stela or Moabite Stone. I think I 
> remember that in this inscription he is used as a (word final) 
> mater lectionis, but vav is not. But maybe someone else can confirm 
> this or correct me.
> 
> -- Peter Kirk
> peter AT qaya.org (personal)
> peterkirk AT qaya.org (work)
> http://www.qaya.org/


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