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  • From: Uri Hurwitz <uhurwitz AT yahoo.com>
  • To: George Athas <gathas AT hotkey.net.au>, b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Cc:
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Piel etc.
  • Date: Fri, 13 May 2005 06:36:32 -0700 (PDT)

Yes, the two points bellow make good sense. Further, it is legitimate to
ask if the binyanim/stems had no original function, how and why did they
arise when they did in all Semitic languages?

Uri

George Athas <gathas AT hotkey.net.au> wrote, in part:

"...... language does not work like mathematics -- it is far more fluid and
abstract in its logic and operations, and Biblical Hebrew is no exception.
However, I would not swing the pendulum so far the other way that the
binyanim/stems become purely arbitrary forms. There does seem to be some
method to the 'madness' of the binyanim/stems...."

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Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Channels, Rivers, & Heads
Date: Fri, 13 May 2005 06:55:17 -0700
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Jack, Yigal, et al.,

On May 12, 2005, at 10:14 PM, <tladatsi AT charter.net>
<tladatsi AT charter.net> wrote:
> The point about *heads* is interesting. Persumably the
> Hebrew term *head* of a river corresponds with the English
> word *mouth* of a river. This does not change anything as
> the single river in Eden is still the headwaters of four
> rivers with different *heads/mouths*. The *tails* of these
> rivers still lead the ancient and modern reader to eastern
> Turkey.

While I don't have any real reason to doubt Yigal's claim on this
point (and Eden would still be the place where the rivers *separate*
as narrated in Genesis 2), I would like to have some justification
for it. By "justification" I mean actual attested uses where the
"head" of the river is where it empties into some other larger body
of water rather than its source. It would help me sleep better at
night. :-)

Chris

--
R. Christopher Heard
Assistant Professor of Religion
Pepperdine University
Malibu, California 90263-4352
http://faculty.pepperdine.edu/cheard
http://www.iTanakh.org
http://www.semioticsandexegesis.info




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