Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Vadim Cherny" <VadimCherny AT mail.ru>]

> >These correlations might or might not be true, but the reasoning is
flawed.
>
> In this case, lacking evidence to the contrary, we should assume that
ancient Hebrew follows
> the same universal patterns that have been discovered in all modern
> languages.  And we do not find templatic morphology dictating
> semantics.

How about Russian aspects, for starters?
Any difference of emphatic prefix вы- (выдавливать, выделывать) from piel?

As for the evidence for semantic shifts - well, many or most English words
have now different connotation than in ME.

> >kibel, for example, could well be thought more emphatic than paal form.
> >nizkar could well be "to receive recollection"
> >giddel might reflect the burdensomeness of raising
>
> I'd be interested to see any evidence you have for these claims.

What "could" be an evidence?  A visit to heavens for a chat with ancient
scribe?

Vadim Cherny