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b-hebrew - Re: [b-hebrew] Why Semitic languages had no written vowels?

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  • From: "Karl Randolph" <kwrandolph AT email.com>
  • To: Hebrew <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Why Semitic languages had no written vowels?
  • Date: Thu, 28 Apr 2005 22:27:53 -0500

Vadim:

I have dyslexia, so I never could do speed reading. It even extends to my
typing and handwriting. Frustrating.

But when there is a letter for each consonent, in other words, a direct
corrolation of one glyph per consonental sound, a native speaker finds that
after a short
time that he is able to fill in the missing vowels in a consonental text.
Even an English speaker. He may not be able to speed read, but he can
understand the
text nonetheless.

As for recognizing the difference between a Qal and Piel, I have yet to see a
well defined way that all can agree to to recognize it from the context. It
seems
that even the top scholars disagree on what a Piel stands for.

Karl W. Randolph.

----- Original Message -----
From: "Vadim Cherny" <VadimCherny AT mail.ru>
>
> Karl,
>
> We discussed it several times, and you know that I disagree completely.
> I taught speed reading years ago, a sort of reading few thousands (actually,
> almost hundred thousand in one case) words per minute, and found out that
> people understand text when they remember just 2-3% of it, and 25-27% is
> subjectively considered "photographic."
> When you speak about few ambiguities, you imply that the text is
> understandable. But you cannot distinguish piel from paal.
>
> Vadim Cherny
--
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