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b-hebrew - Re: [b-hebrew] Why Semitic languages had no written vowels?

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  • From: Peter Kirk <peterkirk AT qaya.org>
  • To: Vadim Cherny <VadimCherny AT mail.ru>
  • Cc: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Why Semitic languages had no written vowels?
  • Date: Sat, 30 Apr 2005 00:37:02 +0100

On 29/04/2005 17:25, Vadim Cherny wrote:

...

Note "everything" and "potentially." Vowels are central to Semitic
morphology. They "are" the morphology. Without vowels, script is not just
potentially sometimes ambiguous, but morphologically inadequate.


You seem to be contradicting yourself. First you claim that Semitic is vowelless, now that vowels are central to its morphology. Do you mean that there has been a change since Bible times, that Hebrew etc used to be vowelless and then acquired vowels? If so, do you mean that biblical Hebrew originally lacked morphology? This is patently ridiculous.


--
Peter Kirk
peter AT qaya.org (personal)
peterkirk AT qaya.org (work)
http://www.qaya.org/



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