Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Peter Kirk <peterkirk AT qaya.org>]

On 26/02/2005 15:38, Karyn Traphagen wrote:

> ...
>
> From Ruth 2 vs 2 we have the verb _wa'alaqotah_ (I probably don't have 
> the transliteration accurate... the word is: waw-patach--aleph-hataf 
> patach--lamed-patach--qof-hataf qamats--tet-qamats--heh) No dagesh. 
> The verb is parsed as a Piel cohortative. I don't expect this pointing 
> with a Piel stem! Where is the dagesh in the middle root? The BHQ has 
> a dagesh in the tet. Why?
>
> Or Ruth 1:18 the first word of the verse _watere'_ which is a Qal 
> Imperfect 3fs of r'h. How do we get the sere and segol? (on this one 
> our professor did put together a presentation to help us see the 
> historical development that led to this form).
>
> So, my quest for where to turn for resources remains. When my current 
> arsenal of patterns and explanations falls short, where can I go to 
> try to track down the "why" for the pointing?
Karyn, I wonder whether this first example is in fact a textual error.

But if you are in fact interested not so much in the writing system but 
more in the underlying phonological processes, you might like to look 
for example at Henry Churchyard's thesis, available from 
http://www.crossmyt.com/hc/linghebr/index.html. See especially the 
selection of "the sections that would probably be of most interest to 
Hebrew scholars who are not fully conversant with generative phonology" 
- unless of course you are fully conversant.

--
Peter Kirk
peter AT qaya.org (personal)
peterkirk AT qaya.org (work)
http://www.qaya.org/



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