Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Dave Washburn <dwashbur AT nyx.net>]

On Wednesday 06 October 2004 11:09, MarianneLuban AT aol.com wrote:
> In a message dated 10/6/2004 9:47:30 AM Pacific Daylight Time,
>
> dwashbur AT nyx.net writes:
> > Interesting!  Is it a more or less unmarked form, or does it perform some
> > function such as emphasis/focus/call-it-what-you-like?
>
> "ink" or "inwk" is just the way a person says something about himself.  But
> Gardiner also says this, giving some examples:  "In both uses some degree
> of emphasis rests upon the pronouns, and in some contexts it would be
> desirable to translate 'It is I (who am) thy father, 'it is I (who am)
> good.'"

Okay, building on this and Harold's Hebrew examples, does the pronoun in 
Egyptian ever appear in clauses with an explicit verb as in Judg 6:8, or does 
it only appear in so-called verbless clauses of the type Harold cited?  Going 
by your comment that it "is just the way a person says something about 
himself" I tend to suspect the latter, but I don't want to misrepresent 
either you or the Egyptian language (about which I know nothing at all).

-- 
Dave Washburn
http://www.nyx.net/~dwashbur
"No good.  Hit on head."   -Gronk