Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Lisbeth S. Fried" <lizfried AT umich.edu>]

Dear Vadim,
I misspoke, miswrote. I meant for Hebrew writers of the
Persian period. Under the Persians you have what has
been called a secularization of the law, the merging
of the law of the king and the law of the god.
Under Hammurabi, for example, just decisions, mishpat,
was separate from the gods. Right order, kinatu, was
not given by the gods, but part of nature. The gods were
deemed too capricious to be held responsible. 
Now it is interesting that the Priestly code has the
law being given by YHWH -- and by Moses. This places
Moses (as King) as lawgiver whose laws are synonymous with
YHWH's laws. Writers prior to the Persians demand that the
king be accountable to torah, correct behavior. This doesn't
occur under the Persians, when the king's behavior is torah
by definition.
The word nomos is a good translation of torah, data, etc.
It too does not refer to legislated law, but right thinking,
order, tradition, custom, correct procedure, everything in its
proper place.
Sorry for the confusion,
Best,
Liz

> -----Original Message-----
> From: UUC [mailto:unikom AT paco.net]
> Sent: Wednesday, May 26, 2004 10:03 AM
> To: Lisbeth S. Fried
> Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Isaiah 53 read within the book as a whole
> 
> Dear Liz,
> 
> >For Hebrew writers of course the data of the king is the torah of YHWH.<
> If this is so, why do the prophets criticize the evil kings? No, Jewish
> king
> should comply with Torah, not whatever he declares is the Torah.
> Torah is a law only for LXX authors.
> Torah and mishpat are the two branches of the shalom, not synonyms.
> 
> 
> Best regards,
> 
> Vadim