Biblical Hebrew Forum

["UUC" <unikom AT paco.net>]

Dear Harold,

Oh, irregular grammar again... Is there anything in the chapter you read as
a standard grammar?

Anyway, your explanation may explain ABSENCE of le where it is needed, but
not PRESENCE of le when, according to your translation, it doesn't fit.


Sincerely,

Vadim Cherny


> >Perhaps, anyone would care to explain me how iazdik zadik lerabim
> >was translated as the righteous shall make many righteous.
> >
> >Besides the tense, I don't see preposition le in this translation.
>
> HH:  Biblical Hebrew is flexible about the handling of accusative
> objects of the verb. Sometimes a verb might not have the preposition
> L before an object, and sometimes it might have it. Consider the verb
> KSH (cover) which has a L preposition at Isaiah 11:9 but does not
> have a L preposition at Isaiah 6:2. The same writer varied his
> practice in two different contexts. So although the HIPHIL of CDQ
> (iazdik) does not normally take the preposition L with the
> accusative, that fact does not mean that it cannot.
>
> Yours,
> Harold Holmyard
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