Biblical Hebrew Forum

["UUC" <unikom AT paco.net>]

Dear Listmembers,

Perhaps, anyone would care to explain me how iazdik zadik lerabim was 
translated as the righteous shall make many righteous.

Besides the tense, I don't see preposition le in this translation.

More plausibly, would have justified the righteous (Jews? secatirans?) before 
multitude (of nations? of Jews?)


Sincerely,

Vadim Cherny
>From hholmyard AT ont.com  Sun May 23 08:43:23 2004
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Date: Sun, 23 May 2004 07:41:09 -0500
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From: "Harold R. Holmyard III" <hholmyard AT ont.com>
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Isaiah 53: bruises?
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Dear Vadim,

>To begin with, haburah is a different word from havurah, since otherwise you
>cannot account for hatef (ex-kamatz) in havurah.

HH: The hatef is there because of the 3ms pronominal suffix that has
been added to XBRH in Isa 53:5. When you add a pronoun suffix, it
often reduces the first vowel of the noun.

                                Yours,
                                Harold Holmyard