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  • From: "Harold R. Holmyard III" <hholmyard AT ont.com>
  • To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Isaiah 53: justify righteous?
  • Date: Sun, 23 May 2004 08:00:40 -0500

Dear Vadim,

Perhaps, anyone would care to explain me how iazdik zadik lerabim was translated as the righteous shall make many righteous.

Besides the tense, I don't see preposition le in this translation.

HH: Biblical Hebrew is flexible about the handling of accusative objects of the verb. Sometimes a verb might not have the preposition L before an object, and sometimes it might have it. Consider the verb KSH (cover) which has a L preposition at Isaiah 11:9 but does not have a L preposition at Isaiah 6:2. The same writer varied his practice in two different contexts. So although the HIPHIL of CDQ (iazdik) does not normally take the preposition L with the accusative, that fact does not mean that it cannot.

Yours,
Harold Holmyard




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