Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Harold R. Holmyard III" <hholmyard AT ont.com>]

Dear Vadim,

> Perhaps, anyone would care to explain me how iazdik zadik lerabim 
> was translated as the righteous shall make many righteous.
>
> Besides the tense, I don't see preposition le in this translation.

HH:  Biblical Hebrew is flexible about the handling of accusative 
objects of the verb. Sometimes a verb might not have the preposition 
L before an object, and sometimes it might have it. Consider the verb 
KSH (cover) which has a L preposition at Isaiah 11:9 but does not 
have a L preposition at Isaiah 6:2. The same writer varied his 
practice in two different contexts. So although the HIPHIL of CDQ 
(iazdik) does not normally take the preposition L with the 
accusative, that fact does not mean that it cannot.

                                Yours,
                                Harold Holmyard