Biblical Hebrew Forum

["UUC" <unikom AT paco.net>]

Dear Harold,

>Perhaps the Israelites had a mental concept like "bring righteousness"
Isn't it true that allowing yourself assumptions like that, you can explain
anything to suit your notions?

Would you show me same usage of izdk le as make righteous anywhere else, or
is it just another speculation?


Sincerely,

Vadim Cherny


>
> >Oh, irregular grammar again... Is there anything in the chapter you read
as
> >a standard grammar?
> >
> >Anyway, your explanation may explain ABSENCE of le where it is needed,
but
> >not PRESENCE of le when, according to your translation, it doesn't fit.
>
> HH: There is nothing irregular about the grammar. The preposition L
> can be a marker for the accusative with an active transitive verb.
> See Waltke-O'Connor 11.2.10g. That is what most people understand in
> Isaiah 53:11. "The righteous one justified the many." Perhaps the
> Israelites had a mental concept like "bring righteousness" for the
> verb. Then a goal-oriented preposition like L would be suitable: "The
> righteous one brought righteousness to the many." You should also
> consider buying a good grammar, and you should consult other
> translations. Again, you would avoid a lot of headaches.
>
> Yours,
> Harold Holmyard
>
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