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  • From: Peter Kirk <peter.r.kirk AT ntlworld.com>
  • To: Hebrew <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] When did Hebrew cease to be a commonly spoken language?
  • Date: Mon, 16 Jun 2003 09:53:26 -0700

Karl Randolph wrote:

Dear Michael Millier:

I have very little direct evidence. Ken Penner in his letter raises questions
based on evidence I lack.

However, I noticed that, assuming that the authors and dates are as the Bible
claims, there was a certain amount of language change from Torah to Jeremiah,
but the post exilic authors returned to a style more akin to that found in
Torah. In other words, there was a discontinuity of language development.
That suggests to me that while Hebrew continued to be studied and spoken, it
was no longer the primary language of the speakers.

Other clues include the extensive Aramaic insertions into Daniel and Ezra,
where they expected the readers to understand them (contrast to 2 Kings
18:26), and the example of Esther 2:1 where the author inserted the Aramaic
term GZR for the Hebrew XQQ (how many more are there like that?), as well as
the historical situation of the people having been scattered in an Aramaic
millieu, all point to Hebrew having become the scholars’ language and the
language of religion (temple and synagog), official documents and coins that
the common people could understand, but that the common language for everyday
use was Aramaic. When Paul spoke to the crowd in Acts 22:2, the Hebrew
language was specifically mentioned whereas times when Aramaic was spoken the
language was not an issue, again a clue that Hebrew was then the scholars’
language.

I don’t have proof for my belief that Hebrew ceased being the everyday,
common language, nor even strong evidence, just a haunch based on disparate
clues, and my belief could very well be wrong.

Karl W. Randolph.

<snip>

On the same evidence you could argue that English ceased to be a spoken language after 1066. For several hundred years mostly French was used in official circles and all written documents, huge numbers of French loan words made their way into English etc etc. But English rebounded. Why not the same rebound for Hebrew, at least for a short time? Meanwhile there is clear evidence from the DSS and the Mishnah that a new, rather different form of Hebrew emerged gradually some time after the exile, distinct from the admittedly frozen and archaising Hebrew of the post-exilic scriptures. This kind of emergence could not have occurred, I would suggest, if the language didn't have a continuing spoken use.

Randall Buth, who used to be on this list and may still be lurking, has written some interesting scholarly articles on this subject supporting the thesis that Hebrew remained a widely spoken language in the 1st century CE. Some of his material, e.g. "*Where is the Aramaic Bible at Qumran? Scripture Use in the Land of Israel*" and similar articles may be found at the Jerusalem Perspective website, www.jerusalemperspective.com.

--
Peter Kirk
peter.r.kirk AT ntlworld.com
http://web.onetel.net.uk/~peterkirk/







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