Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Karl Randolph" <kwrandolph AT email.com>]

Dear Michael Millier:

I have very little direct evidence. Ken Penner in his letter raises questions 
based on evidence I lack.

However, I noticed that, assuming that the authors and dates are as the Bible 
claims, there was a certain amount of language change from Torah to Jeremiah, 
but the post exilic authors returned to a style more akin to that found in 
Torah. In other words, there was a discontinuity of language development. 
That suggests to me that while Hebrew continued to be studied and spoken, it 
was no longer the primary language of the speakers.

Other clues include the extensive Aramaic insertions into Daniel and Ezra, 
where they expected the readers to understand them (contrast to 2 Kings 
18:26), and the example of Esther 2:1 where the author inserted the Aramaic 
term GZR for the Hebrew XQQ (how many more are there like that?), as well as 
the historical situation of the people having been scattered in an Aramaic 
millieu, all point to Hebrew having become the scholars’ language and the 
language of religion (temple and synagog), official documents and coins that 
the common people could understand, but that the common language for everyday 
use was Aramaic. When Paul spoke to the crowd in Acts 22:2, the Hebrew 
language was specifically mentioned whereas times when Aramaic was spoken the 
language was not an issue, again a clue that Hebrew was then the scholars’ 
language.

I don’t have proof for my belief that Hebrew ceased being the everyday, 
common language, nor even strong evidence, just a haunch based on disparate 
clues, and my belief could very well be wrong.

Karl W. Randolph.

----- Original Message -----
From: Deborah Millier <deborahmillier AT yahoo.com>

> On the "Are peh, law and kaf aspirated in Biblical
> Hebrew" thread, K. Randolph made this passing comment:
> 
> > I personally believe that the Hebrew 
> > language, after the Galut Babel, 
> > pretty much died as an everyday 
> > spoken language and was under 
> > pressure to change from Aramaic and 
> > later Greek, and it did. 
> 
> While acknowledging that there came more concentrated
> Aramaic and Greek influences after the GALUT BAVEL,
> the evidence is pretty convincing that Hebrew remained
> an "everyday spoken language" in Judea and even among
> AM HA-ARETZ in Galilee until, maybe, the 2nd century
> C.E.  So why do you believe as you do?
> 
> KOL TUV,
> -- Michael Millier
-- 
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