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  • From: "Lisbeth S. Fried" <lizfried AT umich.edu>
  • To: "b-hebrew" <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: RE: Psalm 110 was Re: [b-hebrew] LORD
  • Date: Fri, 14 Feb 2003 14:03:00 -0500

Dear Mark,
Until you can demonstrate that "leDWD" means "written by"
David, I remain unconvinced.
Jeremiah sent a letter to the exiles in Babylon (Jer. 29:4).
The letter was lekol ha golah.
The letter was "addressed to" or "dedicated to" the golah,
not "written by" the golah.
Liz

> -----Original Message-----
> From: b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org
> [mailto:b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org]On Behalf Of
> Pastor Mark Eddy
> Sent: Fri, February 14, 2003 12:00 PM
> To: b-hebrew
> Subject: Psalm 110 was Re: [b-hebrew] LORD
>
>
> Dear Liz,
> My answers are interspersed below.
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: "Lisbeth S. Fried" >
> > Dear Mark,
> > Why do you assume David or even a davidic king wrote this psalm?
>
> That's what the text of the Hebrew Bible says in the Psalm
> title: LeDaWiD. We have no evidence to
> contradict this statement by the comiler(s) of the Psalms.
>

>





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