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  • From: Yigal Levin <Yigal-Levin AT utc.edu>
  • To: <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: [b-hebrew] RE: Psalm 110
  • Date: Sun, 16 Feb 2003 15:54:54 -0500

Yesterday I happened to come across a Leubavitch siddur (prayer book) with
the Psalms at the end, and I noticed that some of the Psalms had a little
note explaining their content or context. I opened Ps. 110, and the note
explained that the "speaker" (whose words, I assume, were transmitted by
David) was actually Eliezer, servant of Abraham, and that "my lord" to whom
YHWH promised a priesthood like Melchizedek was Abraham.

There was no reference to the origin of this midrash, and I don't think it
historically possible, but it's a nice idea - COULD that have been the
intention of the composer? What think y'all?





Dr. Yigal Levin
Dept. of Philosophy and Religion
University of Tennessee at Chattanooga
615 McCallie Avenue
Chattanooga TN 37403-2598
U.S.A.
>From Yigal-Levin AT utc.edu Sun Feb 16 15:57:15 2003
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Date: Sun, 16 Feb 2003 16:00:56 -0500
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From: Yigal Levin <Yigal-Levin AT utc.edu>
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Neh. 1:2
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Hi Liz,

I have nothing to add to what Trevor wrote about the singular peletah. As
far as the context, I remember reading somewhere (I don't have the
reference on hand) an idea that the destruction of Jerusalem that Nehemiah
had just heard about was NOT the destruction of 586/7, which would not have
been news some 140 years later, but a more recent attack on the city,
perhaps as a result of some rebellion in Ebernari during the first part of
Artaxerxes' reign. I'm sure that you will find the reference.

Yigal

At 09:37 PM 2/14/2003 -0500, Lisbeth S. Fried wrote:
>Dear All,
>Why is happleyTah in the singular in Neh. 1:2?
>I'm starting to translate Ezra-Nehemiah (starting with Nehemiah)
>so I'm going to be bothering you all a lot for the next few years
>probably.
>Thanks for the help now and all the anticipated future help.
>Oh, and if anyone has any idea what the verse means, I'd like to hear
>that too.
>Thanks.
>Liz Fried
>
>
>
>
>_______________________________________________
>b-hebrew mailing list
>b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
>http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew
>
Dr. Yigal Levin
Dept. of Philosophy and Religion
University of Tennessee at Chattanooga
615 McCallie Avenue
Chattanooga TN 37403-2598
U.S.A.
>From lizfried AT umich.edu Sun Feb 16 16:10:42 2003
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From: "Lisbeth S. Fried" <lizfried AT umich.edu>
To: <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Subject: RE: [b-hebrew] Neh. 1:2
Date: Sun, 16 Feb 2003 16:16:27 -0500
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> -----Original Message-----
> From: b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org
> [mailto:b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org]On Behalf Of Yigal Levin
> Sent: Sun, February 16, 2003 4:01 PM
> To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
> Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Neh. 1:2
>
>
> Hi Liz,
>
> I have nothing to add to what Trevor wrote about the singular
> peletah. As
> far as the context, I remember reading somewhere (I don't have the
> reference on hand) an idea that the destruction of Jerusalem
> that Nehemiah
> had just heard about was NOT the destruction of 586/7, which
> would not have
> been news some 140 years later, but a more recent attack on the city,
> perhaps as a result of some rebellion in Ebernari during the
> first part of
> Artaxerxes' reign. I'm sure that you will find the reference.
>
> Yigal
Thanks Yigal,
I'm thinking now that the historian who compiled
Ezra-Nehemiah wrote Nehemiah 1 himself, and
that it is not part of the memoir.
I'm thinking now, as well, that this historian believed that
Nehemiah returned with the first return (Ezra 2:1).
The event that Hanani referred to was probably
the destruction of the temple and the city by Nebuchadnezzar.
If so, the captivity wouldn't have been very long in the
historian's eyes, no time at all, really.
Thus, the whole Persian period would have been 70 years,
from the time of the destruction of the temple to its dedication
under Darius.
I still don't know, tho, whether he had in mind people
who returned from captivity, or people who avoided
captivity altogether in Neh. 1:2 -- or both.
Liz
>
> At 09:37 PM 2/14/2003 -0500, Lisbeth S. Fried wrote:
> >Dear All,
> >Why is happleyTah in the singular in Neh. 1:2?
> >I'm starting to translate Ezra-Nehemiah (starting with Nehemiah)
> >so I'm going to be bothering you all a lot for the next few years
> >probably.
> >Thanks for the help now and all the anticipated future help.
> >Oh, and if anyone has any idea what the verse means, I'd like to hear
> >that too.
> >Thanks.
> >Liz Fried
> >
> >
> >
> >
> >_______________________________________________
> >b-hebrew mailing list
> >b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
> >http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew
> >
> Dr. Yigal Levin
> Dept. of Philosophy and Religion
> University of Tennessee at Chattanooga
> 615 McCallie Avenue
> Chattanooga TN 37403-2598
> U.S.A.
> _______________________________________________
> b-hebrew mailing list
> b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
> http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew





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