Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Yigal Levin <Yigal-Levin AT utc.edu>]

At 08:42 AM 8/16/2002 -0400, Mike Sangrey wrote:
>Just an additional piece of information for Peter and Ian (unless it's
>been said and I missed it):  you can't have `time' until you have
>`light'.  For references, see Einstein.  So, the author couldn't talk
>about `days' or use the term until the light was created.  It's an
>impossible condition.

C'mon, y'all: this is ridiculous. The biblical authors didn't know about
Einstein's time=energy equation (and really, who here can claim to
understand it). Since our discussion is NOT about creation vs. science, we
should focus on what the author(s) meant or perceived.
>
>BTW, this also helps explain why he uses `day' before day 4.  We
>associate `day' with the sun, the author didn't.  He associated it with
>a span of time, one which he repeatedly clarifies and defines as
>"evening and morning."
>
But here's a thought: the author had no problem with the concept of "day
and night" before the creation of the sun and moon because the way he saw
it, the earth was stable (didn't turn on its axis) and the change from
darkness to light was a constant, created by God, and not "caused" bu the
sun and moon. The "large light" and the "small light" were added on to the
pre-existing (since day 1) day and night.





Dr. Yigal Levin
Dept. of Philosophy and Religion
University of Tennessee at Chattanooga
615 McCallie Avenue
Chattanooga TN 37403-2598
U.S.A.