Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Dave Washburn" <dwashbur AT nyx.net>]

> 
> 
> Although I have no comment on the cause of this perpetual qeri'/kethib, I 
> do think it 
> should be obvious that it has no bearing on the validity of the documentary 
> hypothesis. 
> The consistency of the phenomenon in Torah and relative absence outside it 
> seems 
> more indicative of a global change in orthography than any difference or 
> lack thereof in 
> source. 
> ---
It's easy to declare such a hypothesis "obvious," isn't it?  Especially since 
there is no 
documentary or linguistic evidence to either affirm or refute it.  That's the 
beauty of 
this field: one can toss out just about any idea and have a 50-50 chance of 
being 
right.

Dave Washburn
http://www.nyx.net/~dwashbur