Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Jones, Brian" <JBJONES AT stoel.com>]

On the bottom of page 46 of Weingreen's grammar, he gives an example of
construct usage with proper nouns and uses the example "the land of
Canaan".  He spells the construct form of eretz as aleph seghol resh
sere tsade.  Why is the second vowel sere?  Is this a misprint?  I don't
understand, according to Weingreen's discussion of the construct, why a
vowel would lengthen in the construct form.  Trivial question, but I
appreciate anyone's help.

On a somewhat related note, I haven't taken the time yet to work through
the number of posts necessary to figure out the transliteration system
used on this list.  It's different than that I've used before, and while
I get the basics, I couldn't figure out how to transliterate my question
above because I didn't know how to distinguish a seghol from a sere that
is not followed by a vowel letter.  Can anyone give me a quick primer?

Thanks again.

Brian Jones