Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Michael Hildenbrand <hildenbr AT Haas.Berkeley.EDU>]

Dave,
        The sun and moon are simply God's time pieces.  Evening and
Morning existed before the sun and moon were created.  Evening and
morning exist if it is cloudy in our present day.  You may argue that the 
sun and moon are despite the clouds in the way, but you are not
understanding the phenominality (is that a word?) of the text.  The text
describes things as one would view it from earth.  I fail to see how
one should take evening and morning any other way than literal.  How would
you *translate* evening and morning?  This would indicate how you
understand the terms.  Would you translate them "evening and morning" with
a little aside "hey that's what I said, but I really mean it
differently"?  If it isn't literal (as both of the terms are used
*everywhere* else), what is it?
        
Michael

 On Mon, 28 Aug 2000, Dave Washburn wrote:

> > None of these passages have YOM used in conjunction with numbers, as in
> > Gen 1.  My argument still stands.
> > 
> > As to "evening and morning":  Since this phrase only occurs here, you
> > would have a case of special pleading if you took it any other way than
> > its constituant parts indicate.  That is, evening should be taken as
> > "evening" and morning as "morning" unless otherwise indicated.  In *every*
> > case where the two are used in the same sentence (some 35x in Bible
> > works), the words *never* bear any other meaning than the literal.  This
> > makes the case for "evening and morning" in Gen 1 quite strong to
> > understand them to refer to the same evening and morning as we are
> > familiar with.  
> 
> You still need to deal with the fact that the sun and moon, which 
> are responsible for producing evening and morning, aren't created 
> until the fourth day, which argues strongly that evening and 
> morning aren't literal at all at least on the first three days.
> 
> 
> Dave Washburn
> http://www.nyx.net/~dwashbur
> "Éist le glór Dé."
> 
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