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  • From: "Michael Abernathy" <mabernat AT cub.kcnet.org>
  • To: "Corpus-paul" <corpus-paul AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
  • Subject: Re: 1 Cor 14:36 and 1 Tim. 2:12
  • Date: Mon, 10 Dec 2001 17:39:48 -0800


Frank,

> I've read that the phrase in 1 Tim. 2:12, "I suffer not a woman to
teach"...
> is in the present active voice, which would literally read: 'I am not at
the
> present permitting a woman to teach."
>
> Is this accurate? I'd like verification.
It is in the present tense. However, the Greek present tense does not mean
the same as the English present tense. It may express the idea of habitual
action. "I do not normally permit a woman to teach."


> Also, I have read that Paul's word in 1 Cor. 14:35 "did the word of God
> originate with you ... are you the exclusive recipients..." actually is
in
> the masculine. That the words "YOU" there are a masculine pronoun.
This is not true. The Greek does not have a masculine second person
pronoun.


> Also, can anyone clear up the 'authenteo' debate in 1 Tim. 2:12. i.e. what
> does that word actually mean?
The third century lexicographer Moeris defined authenteo as synonymous with
autodikhn (self-rule). The argument has been made that it wasn't until the
Greek Fathers that the idea of having authority became the more common
translation. See Perriman, Andrew C. "What Eve Did, What Women Shouldn't Do:
The Meaning of AUQENTEW in 1 Timothy 2:12." Tyndale Bulletin vol. 44. no. 1
(1993): 129-142.
Sincerely,
Michael Abernathy
mabernat AT cub.kcnet.org





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