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  • From: <Stephen.Finlan AT durham.ac.uk>
  • To: "Corpus-paul" <corpus-paul AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
  • Subject: Re: 1 Cor 14:36 and 1 Tim. 2:12
  • Date: Wed, 12 Dec 2001 21:17:25 +0000


-------------------
> I've read that the phrase in 1 Tim. 2:12, "I suffer not a woman to
teach"...
> is in the present active voice, which would literally read: 'I am
not at the
> present permitting a woman to teach."
>
> Is this accurate? I'd like verification.
>
> Also, I have read that Paul's word in 1 Cor. 14:35 "did the word of
God
> originate with you ... are you the exclusive recipients..."
actually is in
> the masculine. That the words "YOU" there are a masculine pronoun.
>
> If this is true, are all the other "you" statements that begin with
'e'
> (11:1, 10:22; 9:10, etc.) in the masculine also?

First of all, when masculine plural is used in Greek, this
only tells us that SOME of the addressees are male. In
other words, when the addressed group consists of men and
women, the male gender is used. So male plurals cannot tell
us that it is an all-male audience (although it MIGHT be!).

Secondly, the pronouns [h]UMWN and [h]UMAS in 1 Co 14:36
(not 35) get the same spelling in masculine and in feminine,
but the accompanying adjective, MONOUS, is in the masculine
gender (feminine would be MONAS), so we can at least
deteremine that grammatical gender is masculine.

The verb in 1 Cor 11:1 (become imitators) is plural (finite
verbs do not have gender, though).

The verbs in 1 Cor 10:21 (you cannot drink) are plural.

The pronouns in 1 Cor 9:10 (because of us, etc) are plural,
but there is no difference between masculine and feminine
in [h]UMAS.

Steve Finlan
Durham




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