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  • From: Ntsearcher AT aol.com
  • To: corpus-paul AT franklin.oit.unc.edu
  • Subject: 1 Cor 14:36 and 1 Tim. 2:12
  • Date: Mon, 10 Dec 2001 15:22:34 EST


I've read that the phrase in 1 Tim. 2:12, "I suffer not a woman to teach"...
is in the present active voice, which would literally read: 'I am not at the
present permitting a woman to teach."

Is this accurate? I'd like verification.

Also, I have read that Paul's word in 1 Cor. 14:35 "did the word of God
originate with you ... are you the exclusive recipients..." actually is in
the masculine. That the words "YOU" there are a masculine pronoun.

If this is true, are all the other "you" statements that begin with 'e'
(11:1, 10:22; 9:10, etc.) in the masculine also?

In other words, could Paul be saying "did the word of God originate with YOU
MEN."?

Also, can anyone clear up the 'authenteo' debate in 1 Tim. 2:12. i.e. what
does that word actually mean?

Thanks.
Frank Anthony





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