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  • From: KDyinger AT aol.com
  • To: corpus-paul AT franklin.oit.unc.edu
  • Subject: Re: 1 Cor 14:36 and 1 Tim. 2:12
  • Date: Tue, 11 Dec 2001 20:18:10 EST

In a message dated 12/10/01 2:32:13 PM Pacific Standard Time, mabernat AT cub.kcnet.org writes:


Subj:[corpus-paul] Re: 1 Cor 14:36 and 1 Tim. 2:12
Date:12/10/01 2:32:13 PM Pacific Standard Time
From:    mabernat AT cub.kcnet.org (Michael Abernathy)
Reply-to:    corpus-paul AT franklin.oit.unc.edu (Corpus-paul)
To:    corpus-paul AT franklin.oit.unc.edu (Corpus-paul)





> I've read that the phrase in 1 Tim. 2:12, "I suffer not a woman to
teach"...
> is in the present active voice, which would literally read: 'I am not at
the
> present permitting a woman to teach."
>
> Is this accurate? I'd like verification.
It is in the present tense. However, the Greek present tense does not mean
the same as the English present tense.  It may express the idea of habitual
action.  "I do not normally permit a woman to teach."



Only one notation to Michael's comments -- While "the Greek present tense does not mean the same as the English present tense," neither does it necessarily "express the idea of habitual action" (Michael's "may express" certainly absolves him on this point), or any other Aktionsart ("type of action") for that matter. An 'aspectual' theory of Greek tenses will assert that nothing about the type of action (punctiliar, linear, etc.) need be implied; rather the author is choosing the present tense form for other reasons. Perhaps he/she wishes to "front" the issue, i.e., make it more prominent? Perhaps, the present tense is more the default tense for such a verb? For a start in this direction, you may wish to consult Porter, S. E. Idioms of the Greek New Testament. Sheffield: JSOT, 1992.


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