Corpus-Paul

["Jeffrey B. Gibson" <jgibson000 AT mailhost.chi.ameritech.net>]

Recently on Synoptic-L a Loisyite  posted the following claim:

>  ... I don't think it is realistic to see post-Easter Jesus movement
> as
>  opening to the Gentiles very early. To the contrary, I don't believe
> that
>  this opening took place until 100 or thereabouts.

I responded (perhaps rather flippantly) by first noting that

> ... I'm sure that the Gentile Christians in Thessalonika,  Philippi,
> Galatia,
> Corinth, Ephesus, and Rome to whom Paul writes (and among whom he
> worked)
> before 60 and whom Clement of Rome (writing about 96), Ignatius and
> Polycarp
> and Barnabas (writing not long after), and other early fathers each
> assume to
> have been members of, and a significant force within, the Jesus
> movement for
> some time before them, would be very surprised to hear this.

and then by making a claim that  there was pesky (i.e., not subject to
interpolation theories) **archaeological** evidence  that indicates the
existence of Gentile Christianity  and/ or a strong Gentile component
within the Jesus movement in the last three decades of the first cent in
almost all of the major cities, let alone the backwaters
(like Syria/Palestine), of the Roman empire.

But it has been drawn to my attention that with respect to this last
point I may have overstated my case. May I ask then for answers to two
questions?

First, what if any archaeological evidence **is** there that indicates
the existence of Gentile Christianity  and/ or a strong Gentile
component within the Jesus movement in the last three decades of the
first cent in almost all of the major cities, let alone the backwaters
(like Syria/Palestine), of the Roman empire?

Second, what, if any, other evidence could one possible point to in
support  of my argument against the claims of the Loisyite?

Thanks,

Jeffrey
--
Jeffrey B. Gibson
7423 N. Sheridan Road #2A
Chicago, Illinois 60626
e-mail jgibson000 AT ameritech.net