Corpus-Paul

[Jerry Sumney <jsumney AT lextheo.edu>]

Robert Leonzio wrote:
"I am a graduate student with a question concerning Paul's' use of "works
of
the law" in Galatians.  Could someone give me an insight as to what he is
referring to here.  I am reading this as Jewish pious practices in the
absence of faith."

Roy Ciampa's reply:

The publication of the Qumran document 4QMMT has clarified the meaning of
the expression "works of the Law".  Outside of Paul's letters, that is the
only document from antiquity that clearly uses the expression.  In fact,
the authors describe the document as a list of (some of) the "works of the
Law."  There it describes what later came to be called "halakha" or the
precise interpretations of the Law that were considered to be binding upon
the Jewish community (usually with a focus on maintaining the holiness of
the Jewish temple and people).


Liz Fried responded

I am familiar with 4QMMT. Could you please elaborate how the expression 
used
there relates to Paul's use of it?  The expression there is ma`aseh miqseh
ha torah, I believe. What does this mean exactly? The works of the end (?)
of the law????  This isn't the exactly the same as that used by Paul, is 
it?


Btw, the issue of table fellowship with uncircumcised Christians is not the
issue of fellowship, with which there is no problem, but the issue of 
eating
non-kosher food.

Jerry Sumney adds to Liz's response:

It is a rather large leap from a use of a somewhat similar expression in a 
different language in _one_ document of a quite sectarian group to the idea 
that this expression was current in the vernacular of the larger population 
and has moved to Greek-speaking Jews AND that whatever they meant is what 
Paul meant.

On Liz's other point, it is not clear to me that table fellowship was an 
issue for the Galatians.  Paul uses the Antioch situation to make a point 
about his ethos, especially with respect to those who might want Gentiles 
to adhere to parts of the Law he had not called for.  Does that necessarily 
mean the Galatians have the same problem?  Also, do you think it would be a 
problem for law-observant Jewish Christians or observant Jews to sit at the 
same table/right beside someone eating unclean food?  In other words, what 
were "those from James" upset about?  Jews eating non-kosher food?  Jews 
eating with those who ate non-kosher food?  I don't remember Paul calling 
on Jewish Christians to stop keeping the Law (though he may have in some 
circumstances because for his own part he says, I become all things to all 
people).  Acts 21:17-26 (apologetically do you think??) has Paul 
demonstrate that he does not do this

Jerry
Jerry L. Sumney
Lexington Theological Seminary
631 S. Limestone
Lexington, KY 40508
jsumney AT lextheo.edu
(606) 252-0361