Corpus-Paul

["David Amador" <TheVoidBoy AT sprynet.com>]

When Paul quotes the pre-Pauline baptismal formula in Gal 3:28, he meant
what he said.  It was also a wise choice given the rhetorical and
argumentative situation of the letter and communities.

In I Cor, however, certain unanticipated (by him) results of a community
taking this creed seriously began to worry him.  Thus, he sets about writing
a series of arguments and compromises on marriage, slavery and food to idols
based upon his experiences with the Achaian reception of his message.  It
extends to womyn's roles in the service (11.2-16 being a great example of
one of the worst constructed arguments one can imagine from Paul or anyone)
insofar as certain culturally acceptable practices of divine inspiration
(ecstatic trances, glossalalia) become cause for an accusation of disorder,
fragmentation and abuse (which may or may not be accurate). It is possible
to see 11.2 to 14.34 (which is the beginning of a new paragraph, and not
related to 14.33b) as an argumentative trajectory leading toward increasing
control over that part of the population with whom Paul is having the
greatest difficulty in handling.

This is the thesis, as I understand it, of Anne Wire, whose marvelous book,
'Corinthian Women Prophets' stands as one of the best rhetorical analyses of
1 Corinthians.

-David Amador
Santa Rosa, CA
-----Original Message-----
From: Don Mills <donmil AT mx.voyager.co.nz>
To: Corpus-paul <corpus-paul AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
Date: Thursday, May 20, 1999 6:53 AM
Subject: Re: 1 Cor 14:34ff


>At 11:27 PM 19/05/1999 -0400, Anders Eriksson wrote:
>
>>Dear Sheila McGinn
>>
>-----<snip>-----
>>Maybe Conzelmann's cursory dismissal of [1 Cor.]
>>14:34-35 merely on internal grounds got the whole thing going.  But I
>>cannot but be suspicious when I see the correlation between the raise of
>>feminism and the popularity of the interpolation theory. It just seems
like
>>nowadays people don't want Paul to have said what he said.
>-----<end quote>-----
>
>Extensive email problems over the past several weeks mean that I missed
>Sheila's original posting.  But didn't Paul write that "in Christ there is
>neither male nor female"?  Perhaps people want Paul to have *meant* what he
>said.
>
>Don Mills
>---
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