Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Jerry Shepherd <jshepherd53 AT gmail.com>]

Hi Stewart,

 

As Ken has already indicated, the Masoretic accentuation does not support the idea that  וּמָשְׁלוֹ֙is the object of  וְדִבֶּ֥ר .  It is better to simply take this part of the verse as a verbless clause and supply a verb of being.

 

For the second part of your question, it is unlikely that there is an epexegetical relationship between the two phrases.  "From sea to sea" probably refers to the Mediterranean and either of the two arms of the Red Sea.  The "river," however, is the Euphrates.  I don't know if that body of water is ever referred to as "sea" in the Hebrew Bible.

 

Blessings,

 

Jerry

Jerry Shepherd

Taylor Seminary

Edmonton, Alberta

jshepherd53 AT gmail.com

 

On Wed, Aug 14, 2013 at 2:17 PM, Stewart Felker <stewart.felker AT gmail.com> wrote:

וְדִבֶּר שָׁלֹום לַגֹּויִם וּמָשְׁלֹו מִיָּם עַד יָם וּמִנָּהָר עַד אַפְסֵי אָֽרֶץ

I have two issues here. משלו here is to be understood as "his dominion" - the object of דבר, correct? So, "and he will proclaim peace to the nations and [proclaim] his ruling/dominion..." Most major translations seem to be obscure this, supplying that his dominion "will extend" or "will be" from sea to sea.

Also, is it possible that the waw connecting מים עד ים with מנהר עד אפסי ארץ is epexegetical?

Stewart Felker,
University of Memphis

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