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  • From: Timothy Lawson <lostntym8 AT hotmail.com>
  • To: Stephen Shead <sshead.email AT gmail.com>
  • Cc: "b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org" <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] G.Gertoux and the Name...
  • Date: Fri, 7 Jun 2013 03:22:13 -0600

Thanks Stephen for your reply!
 
I would note that the substitution of κύριος can make for awkward Greek which may carry over to the NT:
http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek/forum/viewtopic.php?f=11&t=432&p=9056&hilit=%CE%BA%CF%85%CF%81%CE%B9%CE%BF%CF%82#p9056
 
There is also the strange statement at 1 Cor. 2:16 which may be resolved by viewing κύριος as a substitution for YHWH:  
τίς γὰρ ἔγνω νοῦν κυρίου, ὃς συμβιβάσει αὐτόν; ἡμεῖς δὲ νοῦν Χριστοῦ ἔχομεν.
 
Thanks again for your comments Stephen,
 
T. Scott Lawson
 
Red Bluff, CA USA
 

From: sshead.email AT gmail.com
Date: Fri, 7 Jun 2013 17:59:04 +1000
Subject: Re: G.Gertoux and the Name...
To: lostntym8 AT hotmail.com
CC: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org; rolf.furuli AT sf-nett.no

Timothy,

I didn't mean that the LXX is irrelevant for analysing the Tetragrammaton - far from it!! The textual history of the Tetragrammaton in the LXX is actually a little more complex than that - there is manuscript evidence of different "solutions" for the question of how to render the Hebrew יהוה in Greek translations of the Hebrew Scriptures. "Translating" it as κυριος wasn't the only solution used in all manuscripts. Two other options tried were transliteration into Greek letters (very interesting for those wanting to study the ancient pronunciation!), or simply transcribing it in the Hebrew script.

But Rolf - if I understood him correctly - was claiming that there is "evidence" that the NT originally contained, not (solely?) the "translation" κυριος, but rather the Hebrew word itself (in Hebrew script?), in contexts referring to God or quotes from the OT containing יהוה. My understanding is that there is, in fact, no manuscript evidence for this (i.e. no NT extant manuscript of any shape, size or dating which contains the Hebrew name, in either script - every manuscript found consistently has κυριος).

I have heard logical arguments that the NT must originally have contained the Hebrew Name - partly appealing to the evidence of the LXX (I find these arguments entirely unconvincing). But that does not count as "evidence" for the use of the name in the NT - hence my question to Rolf. I want to know if I'm wrong, and there is actually any NT manuscript which would constitute such evidence.

I hope that answers your question.

Regards,
Stephen Shead.

On Friday, 7 June 2013, Timothy Lawson wrote:
Stephen,

   My copy of BDAG indicates that κύριος in the LXX frequently replaces the name Yahweh in the MT? So, why doesn't the LXX count?

Scott Lawson

Red Bluff, CA

USA


 

From: sshead.email AT gmail.com
Date: Fri, 7 Jun 2013 14:36:29 +1000
To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org; rolf.furuli AT sf-nett.no
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] G.Gertoux and the Name...

Hi Rolf,

>> There is even evidence in favor of including the name in the New Testament.

In which manuscript? (LXX doesn't count, of course.)

Regards,
Stephen Shead


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