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b-hebrew - Re: [b-hebrew] ובלחם

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  • From: john.leake AT yahoo.co.uk
  • To: K Randolph <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>, George.Athas AT moore.edu.au
  • Cc: b-hebrew <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>, jonathan.mohler AT gmail.com
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] ובלחם
  • Date: Mon, 15 Apr 2013 16:51:12 +0100 (BST)

They're homonyms - the Proto-Semitic roots are (no or <χêth>) so both 'roots' are probably etymologically connected , but since both ideas are visible in Arabic, Aramaic, Phoenician (I think) and Hebrew (I've only seen the food side in Ugaritic, but I'm relying on a primer), the split in meaning must be at a very early stage of the language, Proto-West-Semitic, if there's not any borrowing going on.


From: K Randolph <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>;
To: George Athas <George.Athas AT moore.edu.au>;
Cc: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>; Jonathan Mohler <jonathan.mohler AT gmail.com>;
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] ובלחם
Sent: Mon, Apr 15, 2013 3:22:18 PM

George et al:


On Sat, Apr 13, 2013 at 11:06 PM, George Athas <George.Athas AT moore.edu.au> wrote:
I'm unconvinced, Jonathan. I think this is reading too much into etymology. I can't see how we get from 'beating' to 'eating bread'. Also, it doesn't explain the Arabic cognate, which means 'meat'. There are, it seems, two distinct roots: to fight, and to have a meal.

Yes I agree that there seem to be two distinct roots, but are they homonyms or merely homographs? 

GEORGE ATHAS
Dean of Research,
Moore Theological College (moore.edu.au)
Sydney, Australia

Karl W. Randolph.



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