Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Pere Porta <pporta7 AT gmail.com>]

There are for all tastes.
And so, the Catalan version (BCI) has singular in verse 7 but... it changes
to plural in verse 9 and the following.

I guess that in a general way, the use of singular or plural by translators
 depends on what is the thing (singular or plural) every translator focuses
on...

Regards,

Pere Porta

2011/9/20 Yigal Levin <Yigal.Levin AT biu.ac.il>

> I'm sure you're right. I just think that it's interesting how all of the
> English translators chose to follow "Chaldeans" as plural, despite the fact
> that the Hebrew goes with "nation" as singular. The LXX, by the way, stays
> with the singular. Do you (or anyone else) know what any non-English
> translations do?
>
>
>
>
>
> Yigal Levin
>
>
>
> From: Pere Porta [mailto:pporta7 AT gmail.com]
> Sent: Tuesday, September 20, 2011 10:30 AM
> To: Yigal Levin
> Cc: b-hebrew
>  Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Hb 1:7
>
>
>
> I think, Yigal, that this is because of the two number noun types that are
> found in verse 6 (the plural KSDYM and the singular GWY).
>
> The Hebrew writes and refers to the singular (GWY) and translators tink of
> the plural (KSDYM).
>
> But.... they both speak or write on the same entity, not on different
> entities....
>
>
>
> Because really we can assert that in a general way (not always) England
> (singular) = Englishmen (plural); Israel (singular) = Israelians (plural);
> Spain = Spaniards... and so on.
>
>
>
> Do you think I'm right?
>
>
>
> Pere Porta
>
> 2011/9/20 Yigal Levin <Yigal.Levin AT biu.ac.il>
>
> Hi Pere,
>
> I would agree with you. I would also ask why all of the translation that
> I've seen translate this and the other verses in this section as plural,
> when the Hebrew treats the Chaldean nation of verse 6, which is the subject
> all the way to verse 11, as a singular.
>
>
> Yigal Levin
>
> -----Original Message-----
> From: b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org
> [mailto:b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of Pere Porta
> Sent: Tuesday, September 20, 2011 7:58 AM
> To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
> Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Hb 1:7
>
>
>  Related to Hb 1:7.
> The word MMNW (4th in the verse) comes as a part of the first part of the
> verse or it has to be considered as a part of the second part of the verse?
>
> I think that surely it refers to the second part, as a complement of the
> verb YC)
>
> Am I right?
>
> Pere Porta
> (Barcelona, Catalonia, Northeastern Spain)
>
>
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> --
> Pere Porta
>
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-- 
Pere Porta