Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Yigal Levin <Yigal.Levin AT biu.ac.il>]

Hi Pere,

I would agree with you. I would also ask why all of the translation that
I've seen translate this and the other verses in this section as plural,
when the Hebrew treats the Chaldean nation of verse 6, which is the subject
all the way to verse 11, as a singular.


Yigal Levin

-----Original Message-----
From: b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org
[mailto:b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of Pere Porta
Sent: Tuesday, September 20, 2011 7:58 AM
To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Hb 1:7

 Related to Hb 1:7.
The word MMNW (4th in the verse) comes as a part of the first part of the
verse or it has to be considered as a part of the second part of the verse?

I think that surely it refers to the second part, as a complement of the
verb YC)

Am I right?

Pere Porta
(Barcelona, Catalonia, Northeastern Spain)


>  _______________________________________________
> b-hebrew mailing list
> b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
> http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew
>
_______________________________________________
b-hebrew mailing list
b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew