Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Yigal Levin <Yigal.Levin AT biu.ac.il>]

I'm sure you're right. I just think that it's interesting how all of the
English translators chose to follow "Chaldeans" as plural, despite the fact
that the Hebrew goes with "nation" as singular. The LXX, by the way, stays
with the singular. Do you (or anyone else) know what any non-English
translations do?

 

 

Yigal Levin 

 

From: Pere Porta [mailto:pporta7 AT gmail.com] 
Sent: Tuesday, September 20, 2011 10:30 AM
To: Yigal Levin
Cc: b-hebrew
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Hb 1:7

 

I think, Yigal, that this is because of the two number noun types that are
found in verse 6 (the plural KSDYM and the singular GWY).

The Hebrew writes and refers to the singular (GWY) and translators tink of
the plural (KSDYM).

But.... they both speak or write on the same entity, not on different
entities.... 

 

Because really we can assert that in a general way (not always) England
(singular) = Englishmen (plural); Israel (singular) = Israelians (plural);
Spain = Spaniards... and so on.

 

Do you think I'm right?

 

Pere Porta

2011/9/20 Yigal Levin <Yigal.Levin AT biu.ac.il>

Hi Pere,

I would agree with you. I would also ask why all of the translation that
I've seen translate this and the other verses in this section as plural,
when the Hebrew treats the Chaldean nation of verse 6, which is the subject
all the way to verse 11, as a singular.


Yigal Levin

-----Original Message-----
From: b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org
[mailto:b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of Pere Porta
Sent: Tuesday, September 20, 2011 7:58 AM
To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Hb 1:7


 Related to Hb 1:7.
The word MMNW (4th in the verse) comes as a part of the first part of the
verse or it has to be considered as a part of the second part of the verse?

I think that surely it refers to the second part, as a complement of the
verb YC)

Am I right?

Pere Porta
(Barcelona, Catalonia, Northeastern Spain)


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-- 
Pere Porta