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b-hebrew - Re: [b-hebrew] SOBIY

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Subject: Biblical Hebrew Forum

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  • From: K Randolph <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>
  • To: Randall Buth <randallbuth AT gmail.com>
  • Cc: Hebrew <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] SOBIY
  • Date: Thu, 19 May 2011 09:18:50 -0700

Randall:

So you latch on to the exception that proves the rule.

On Thu, May 19, 2011 at 7:22 AM, Randall Buth <randallbuth AT gmail.com> wrote:

> Karl:
> >When people are diglossic between a language and a dialect
> thereof, grammar is almost always almost identical between the dialect and
> the “high” language. That situation does not exist between Biblical Hebrew
> and modern Israeli.>
>

Notice, I didn’t say “always”, “almost always” leaves room for exceptions.

>
> While I don't think that modern Hebrew was an ancient dialect (!),
> this comment about the nature of diglossiai is not true.
>
> Arabic is one of the 'classic' example languages of diglossia and the
> grammar is "quite different".
> Arabic 'prefix-tense' has 'b-' prefixes, something non-existent in the
> high language.
> In colloquial Arabics, the case-endings are not pronounced,
> the modal endings on verbs are not pronounced,
> accusative adjectival plurals are used for nominatives.
>

How much of this is influenced by the Koran and Islam? Where the high form
is an ossified seventh century Arabic maintained to read the Koran? In other
words, this is an artificial situation similar to the Chinese of a century
ago, or a French man of the middle ages speaking Latin?

>
> A diglossic situation existed between BH and Mishnaic Hebrew,
> which also show differences in the grammar:
> a dropping of the vav-ha-hippux verbs,
> dropping of asher
> new binyanim like 'nitpa`el'.
> new vocabulary developments, including the shifting of some
> verbs from one binyan to another.
>

Or was this a tri-glossic situation—reading Tanakh in BH, using Mishnaic
Hebrew for official business, but speaking Aramaic on the streets and at
home? Or some of the really linguistic capable knowing also Greek and Latin?
Or was this an example of Mishnaic speaking Jews misreading Tanakh as a
variety of Mishnaic Hebrew rather than understanding the grammatical meaning
of BH forms, the same way many modern Israelis misread Tanakh?

>
>
> --
> Randall Buth, PhD
>
> Karl W. Randolph.




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